No More Learning

4:4,5), and that the "justification of the Law might be" spiritually
"fulfilled" in His members. Now, the Law contained a twofold precept
touching the children born. one was a general precept which affected
all---namely, that "when the days of the mother's purification were
expired," a sacrifice was to be offered either "for a son or for a
daughter," as laid down Lev. 12:6. And this sacrifice was for the
expiation of the sin in which the child was conceived and born; and
also for a certain consecration of the child, because it was then
presented in the Temple for the first time. Wherefore one offering was
made as a holocaust and another for sin.

The other was a special precept in the law concerning the first-born of
"both man and beast": for the Lord claimed for Himself all the
first-born in Israel, because, in order to deliver the Israelites, He
"slew every first-born in the land of Egypt, both men and cattle" (Ex.
12:12, 13, 29), the first-born of Israel being saved; which law is set
down Ex. 13. Here also was Christ foreshadowed, who is "the First-born
amongst many brethren" (Rom. 8:29).

Therefore, since Christ was born of a woman and was her first-born, and
since He wished to be "made under the Law," the Evangelist Luke shows
that both these precepts were fulfilled in His regard. First, as to
that which concerns the first-born, when he says (Lk. 2:22,23): "They
carried Him to Jerusalem to present Him to the Lord: as it is written
in the law of the Lord, 'Every male opening the womb shall be called
holy to the Lord. '" Secondly, as to the general precept which concerned
all, when he says (Lk. 2:24): "And to offer a sacrifice according as it
is written in the law of the Lord, a pair of turtle doves or two young
pigeons. "

Reply to Objection 1: As Gregory of Nyssa says (De Occursu Dom. ): "It
seems that this precept of the Law was fulfilled in God incarnate alone
in a special manner exclusively proper to Him. For He alone, whose
conception was ineffable, and whose birth was incomprehensible, opened
the virginal womb which had been closed to sexual union, in such a way
that after birth the seal of chastity remained inviolate. " Consequently
the words "opening the womb" imply that nothing hitherto had entered or
gone forth therefrom. Again, for a special reason is it written "'a
male,' because He contracted nothing of the woman's sin": and in a
singular way "is He called 'holy,' because He felt no contagion of
earthly corruption, whose birth was wondrously immaculate" (Ambrose, on
Lk. 2:23).

Reply to Objection 2: As the Son of God "became man, and was
circumcised in the flesh, not for His own sake, but that He might make
us to be God's through grace, and that we might be circumcised in the
spirit; so, again, for our sake He was presented to the Lord, that we
may learn to offer ourselves to God" [*Athanasius, on Lk. 2:23]. And
this was done after His circumcision, in order to show that "no one who
is not circumcised from vice is worthy of Divine regard" [*Bede, on Lk.
2:23].

Reply to Objection 3: For this very reason He wished the legal victims
to be offered for Him who was the true Victim, in order that the figure
might be united to and confirmed by the reality, against those who
denied that in the Gospel Christ preached the God of the Law. "For we
must not think," says Origen (Hom. xiv in Luc. ) "that the good God
subjected His Son to the enemy's law, which He Himself had not given. "

Reply to Objection 4: The law ofLev. 12:6, 8 "commanded those who
could, to offer, for a son or a daughter, a lamb and also a turtle dove
or a pigeon: but those who were unable to offer a lamb were commanded
to offer two turtle doves or two young pigeons" [*Bede, Hom. xv in
Purif. ]. "And so the Lord, who, 'being rich, became poor for our
[Vulg. : 'your'] sakes, that through His poverty we [you] might be
rich," as is written 2 Cor. 8:9, "wished the poor man's victim to be
offered for Him" just as in His birth He was "wrapped in swaddling
clothes and laid in a manger" [*Bede on Lk. 1]. Nevertheless, these
birds have a figurative sense. For the turtle dove, being a loquacious
bird, represents the preaching and confession of faith; and because it
is a chaste animal, it signifies chastity; and being a solitary animal,
it signifies contemplation. The pigeon is a gentle and simple animal,
and therefore signifies gentleness and simplicity. It is also a
gregarious animal; wherefore it signifies the active life. Consequently
this sacrifice signified the perfection of Christ and His members.
Again, "both these animals, by the plaintiveness of their song,
represented the mourning of the saints in this life: but the turtle
dove, being solitary, signifies the tears of prayer; whereas the
pigeon, being gregarious, signifies the public prayers of the Church"
[*Bede, Hom. xv in Purif. ]. Lastly, two of each of these animals are
offered, to show that holiness should be not only in the soul, but also
in the body.
__________________________________________________________________

Whether it was fitting that the Mother of God should go to the temple to be
purified?

Objection 1: It would seem that it was unfitting for the Mother of God
to go to the Temple to be purified. For purification presupposes
uncleanness. But there was no uncleanness in the Blessed Virgin, as
stated above (QQ[27],28). Therefore she should not have gone to the
Temple to be purified.

Objection 2: Further, it is written (Lev. 12:2-4): "If a woman, having
received seed, shall bear a man-child, she shall be unclean seven
days"; and consequently she is forbidden "to enter into the sanctuary
until the days of her purification be fulfilled. " But the Blessed
Virgin brought forth a male child without receiving the seed of man.
Therefore she had no need to come to the Temple to be purified.

Objection 3: Further, purification from uncleanness is accomplished by
grace alone. But the sacraments of the Old Law did not confer grace;
rather, indeed, did she have the very Author of grace with her.
Therefore it was not fitting that the Blessed Virgin should come to the
Temple to be purified.

On the contrary is the authority of Scripture, where it is stated (Lk.
2:22) that "the days of" Mary's "purification were accomplished
according to the law of Moses. "

I answer that, As the fulness of grace flowed from Christ on to His
Mother, so it was becoming that the mother should be like her Son in
humility: for "God giveth grace to the humble," as is written James
4:6. And therefore, just as Christ, though not subject to the Law,
wished, nevertheless, to submit to circumcision and the other burdens
of the Law, in order to give an example of humility and obedience; and
in order to show His approval of the Law; and, again, in order to take
away from the Jews an excuse for calumniating Him: for the same reasons
He wished His Mother also to fulfil the prescriptions of the Law, to
which, nevertheless, she was not subject.

Reply to Objection 1: Although the Blessed Virgin had no uncleanness,
yet she wished to fulfil the observance of purification, not because
she needed it, but on account of the precept of the Law. Thus the
Evangelist says pointedly that the days of her purification "according
to the Law" were accomplished; for she needed no purification in
herself.

Reply to Objection 2: Moses seems to have chosen his words in order to
exclude uncleanness from the Mother of God, who was with child "without
receiving seed. " It is therefore clear that she was not bound to fulfil
that precept, but fulfilled the observance of purification of her own
accord, as stated above.

Reply to Objection 3: The sacraments of the Law did not cleanse from
the uncleanness of sin which is accomplished by grace, but they
foreshadowed this purification: for they cleansed by a kind of carnal
purification, from the uncleanness of a certain irregularity, as stated
in the [4194]FS, Q[102], A[5]; [4195]FS, Q[103], A[2]. But the Blessed
Virgin contracted neither uncleanness, and consequently did not need to
be purified.
__________________________________________________________________

OF THE BAPTISM OF JOHN (SIX ARTICLES)

We now proceed to consider the baptism wherewith Christ was baptized.
And since Christ was baptized with the baptism of John, we shall
consider (1) the baptism of John in general; (2) the baptizing of
Christ. In regard to the former there are six points of inquiry:

(1) Whether it was fitting that John should baptize?

(2) Whether that baptism was from God?

(3) Whether it conferred grace?

(4) Whether others besides Christ should have received that baptism?

(5) Whether that baptism should have ceased when Christ was baptized?

(6) Whether those who received John's baptism had afterwards to receive
Christ's baptism?
__________________________________________________________________

Whether it was fitting that John should baptize?

Objection 1: It would seem that it was not fitting that John should
baptize. For every sacramental rite belongs to some law. But John did
not introduce a new law. Therefore it was not fitting that he should
introduce the new rite of baptism.

Objection 2: Further, John "was sent by God . . . for a witness" (Jn.
1:6,7) as a prophet; according to Lk. 1:76: "Thou, child, shalt be
called the prophet of the Highest. " But the prophets who lived before
Christ did not introduce any new rite, but persuaded men to observe the
rites of the Law. as is clearly stated Malachi 4:4: "Remember the law
of Moses My servant. " Therefore neither should John have introduced a
new rite of baptism.

Objection 3: Further, when there is too much of anything, nothing
should be added to it. But the Jews observed a superfluity of baptisms;
for it is written (Mk. 7:3,4) that "the Pharisees and all the Jews eat
not without often washing their hands . . . and when they come from the
market, unless they be washed, they eat not; and many other things
there are that have been delivered to them to observe, the washings of
cups and of pots, and of brazen vessels, and of beds. " Therefore it was
unfitting that John should baptize.

On the contrary is the authority of Scripture (Mat. 3:5,6), which,
after stating the holiness of John, adds many went out to him, "and
were baptized in the Jordan. "

I answer that, It was fitting for John to baptize, for four reasons:
first, it was necessary for Christ to be baptized by John, in order
that He might sanctify baptism; as Augustine observes, super Joan.
(Tract. xiii in Joan. ).

Secondly, that Christ might be manifested. Whence John himself says
(Jn. 1:31): "That He," i. e. Christ, "may be made manifest in Israel,
therefore am I come baptizing with water. " For he announced Christ to
the crowds that gathered around him; which was thus done much more
easily than if he had gone in search of each individual, as Chrysostom
observes, commenting on St. John (Hom. x in Matth. ).

Thirdly, that by his baptism he might accustom men to the baptism of
Christ; wherefore Gregory says in a homily (Hom. vii in Evang. ) that
therefore did John baptize, "that, being consistent with his office of
precursor, as he had preceded our Lord in birth, so he might also by
baptizing precede Him who was about to baptize. "

Fourthly, that by persuading men to do penance, he might prepare men to
receive worthily the baptism of Christ. Wherefore Bede [*Cf. Scot.
Erig. in Joan. iii, 24] says that "the baptism of John was as
profitable before the baptism of Christ, as instruction in the faith
profits the catechumens not yet baptized. For just as he preached
penance, and foretold the baptism of Christ, and drew men to the
knowledge of the Truth that hath appeared to the world, so do the
ministers of the Church, after instructing men, chide them for their
sins, and lastly promise them forgiveness in the baptism of Christ. "

Reply to Objection 1: The baptism of John was not a sacrament properly
so called [per se], but a kind of sacramental, preparatory to the
baptism of Christ. Consequently, in a way, it belonged to the law of
Christ, but not to the law of Moses.

Reply to Objection 2: John was not only a prophet, but "more than a
prophet," as stated Mat. 11:9: for he was the term of the Law and the
beginning of the Gospel. Therefore it was in his province to lead men,
both by word and deed, to the law of Christ rather than to the
observance of the Old Law.

Reply to Objection 3: Those baptisms of the Pharisees were vain, being
ordered merely unto carnal cleanliness. But the baptism of John was
ordered unto spiritual cleanliness, since it led men to do penance, as
stated above.
__________________________________________________________________

Whether the baptism of John was from God?

Objection 1: It would seem that the baptism of John was not from God.
For nothing sacramental that is from God is named after a mere man:
thus the baptism of the New Law is not named after Peter or Paul, but
after Christ. But that baptism is named after John, according to Mat.
21:25: "The baptism of John . . . was it from heaven or from men? "
Therefore the baptism of John was not from God.

Objection 2: Further, every doctrine that proceeds from God anew is
confirmed by some signs: thus the Lord (Ex. 4) gave Moses the power of
working signs; and it is written (Heb. 2:3,4) that our faith "having
begun to be declared by the Lord, was confirmed unto us by them that
heard Him, God also bearing them witness by signs and wonders. " But it
is written of John the Baptist (Jn. 10:41) that "John did no sign. "
Therefore it seems that the baptism wherewith he baptized was not from
God.

Objection 3: Further, those sacraments which are instituted by God are
contained in certain precepts of Holy Scripture. But there is no
precept of Holy Writ commanding the baptism of John. Therefore it seems
that it was not from God.

On the contrary, It is written (Jn. 1:33): "He who sent me to baptize
with water said to me: 'He upon whom thou shalt see the Spirit,'" etc.

I answer that, Two things may be considered in the baptism of
John---namely, the rite of baptism and the effect of baptism. The rite
of baptism was not from men, but from God, who by an interior
revelation of the Holy Ghost sent John to baptize. But the effect of
that baptism was from man, because it effected nothing that man could
not accomplish. Wherefore it was not from God alone, except in as far
as God works in man.

Reply to Objection 1: By the baptism of the New Law men are baptized
inwardly by the Holy Ghost, and this is accomplished by God alone. But
by the baptism of John the body alone was cleansed by the water.
Wherefore it is written (Mat. 3:11): "I baptize you in water; but . . .
He shall baptize you in the Holy Ghost. " For this reason the baptism of
John was named after him, because it effected nothing that he did not
accomplish. But the baptism of the New Law is not named after the
minister thereof, because he does not accomplish its principal effect,
which is the inward cleansing.

Reply to Objection 2: The whole teaching and work of John was ordered
unto Christ, who, by many miracles confirmed both His own teaching and
that of John. But if John had worked signs, men would have paid equal
attention to John and to Christ. Wherefore, in order that men might pay
greater attention to Christ, it was not given to John to work a sign.
Yet when the Jews asked him why he baptized, he confirmed his office by
the authority of Scripture, saying: "I am the voice of one crying in
the wilderness," etc. as related, Jn. 1:23 (cf. Is. 40:3). Moreover,
the very austerity of his life was a commendation of his office,
because, as Chrysostom says, commenting on Matthew (Hom. x in Matth. ),
"it was wonderful to witness such endurance in a human body. "

Reply to Objection 3: The baptism of John was intended by God to last
only for a short time, for the reasons given above [4196](A[1]).
Therefore it was not the subject of a general commandment set down in
Sacred Writ, but of a certain interior revelation of the Holy Ghost, as
stated above.
__________________________________________________________________

Whether grace was given in the baptism of John?

Objection 1: It would seem that grace was given in the baptism of John.
For it is written (Mk. 1:4): "John was in the desert baptizing and
preaching the baptism of penance unto remission of sins. " But penance
and remission of sins are the effect of grace. Therefore the baptism of
John conferred grace.

Objection 2: Further, those who were about to be baptized by John
"confessed their sins," as related Mat. 3:6 and Mk. 1:5. But the
confession of sins is ordered to their remission, which is effected by
grace. Therefore grace was conferred in the baptism of John.

Objection 3: Further, the baptism of John was more akin than
circumcision to the baptism of Christ. But original sin was remitted
through circumcision: because, as Bede says (Hom. x in Circumcis. ),
"under the Law, circumcision brought the same saving aid to heal the
wound of original sin as baptism is wont to bring now that grace is
revealed. " Much more, therefore, did the baptism of John effect the
remission of sins, which cannot be accomplished without grace.

On the contrary, It is written (Mat. 3:11): "I indeed baptize you in
water unto penance. " Which words Gregory thus expounds in a certain
homily (Hom. vii in Evang. ): "John baptized, not in the Spirit, but in
water: because he could not forgive sins. " But grace is given by the
Holy Ghost, and by means thereof sins are taken away. Therefore the
baptism of John did not confer grace.

I answer that, As stated above (A[2], ad 2), the whole teaching and
work of John was in preparation for Christ: just as it is the duty of
the servant and of the under-craftsman to prepare the matter for the
form which is accomplished by the head-craftsman.
Now grace was to be
conferred on men through Christ, according to Jn. 1:17: "Grace and
truth came through Jesus Christ. " Therefore the baptism of John did not
confer grace, but only prepared the way for grace; and this in three
ways: first, by John's teaching, which led men to faith in Christ;
secondly, by accustoming men to the rite of Christ's baptism; thirdly,
by penance, preparing men to receive the effect of Christ's baptism.

Reply to Objection 1: In these words, as Bede says (on Mk. 1:4), a
twofold baptism of penance may be understood. one is that which John
conferred by baptizing, which is called "a baptism of penance," etc. ,
by reason of its inducing men to do penance, and of its being a kind of
protestation by which men avowed their purpose of doing penance. The
other is the baptism of Christ, by which sins are remitted, and which
John could not give, but only preach, saying: "He will baptize you in
the Holy Ghost. "

Or it may be said that he preached the "baptism of penance," i. e. which
induced men to do penance, which penance leads men on to "the remission
of sins. "

Or again, it may be said with Jerome [*Another author on Mk. 1 (inter
op. Hier. )] that "by the baptism of Christ grace is given, by which
sins are remitted gratis; and that what is accomplished by the
bridegroom is begun by the bridesman," i. e. by John. Consequently it is
said that "he baptized and preached the baptism of penance unto
remission of sins," not as though he accomplished this himself, but
because he began it by preparing the way for it.

Reply to Objection 2: That confession of sins was not made unto the
remission of sins, to be realized immediately through the baptism of
John, but to be obtained through subsequent penance and through the
baptism of Christ, for which that penance was a preparation.

Reply to Objection 3: Circumcision was instituted as a remedy for
original sin. Whereas the baptism of John was not instituted for this
purpose, but was merely in preparation for the baptism of Christ, as
stated above; whereas the sacraments attain their effect through the
force of their institution.
__________________________________________________________________

Whether Christ alone should have been baptized with the baptism of John?

Objection 1: It would seem that Christ alone should have been baptized
with the baptism of John. For, as stated above [4197](A[1]), "the
reason why John baptized was that Christ might receive baptism," as
Augustine says (Super Joan. , Tract. xiii). But what is proper to Christ
should not be applicable to others. Therefore no others should have
received that baptism.

Objection 2: Further, whoever is baptized either receives something
from the baptism or confers something on the baptism. But no one could
receive anything from the baptism of John, because thereby grace was
not conferred, as stated above [4198](A[3]). On the other hand, no one
could confer anything on baptism save Christ, who "sanctified the
waters by the touch of His most pure flesh" [*Mag. Sent. iv, 3].
Therefore it seems that Christ alone should have been baptized with the
baptism of John.

Objection 3: Further, if others were baptized with that baptism, this
was only in order that they might be prepared for the baptism of
Christ: and thus it would seem fitting that the baptism of John should
be conferred on all, old and young, Gentile and Jew, just as the
baptism of Christ. But we do not read that either children or Gentiles
were baptized by the latter; for it is written (Mk. 1:5) that "there
went out to him . . . all they of Jerusalem, and were baptized by him. "
Therefore it seems that Christ alone should have been baptized by John.

On the contrary, It is written (Lk. 3:21): "It came to pass, when all
the people were baptized, that Jesus also being baptized and praying,
heaven was opened. "

I answer that, For two reasons it behooved others besides Christ to be
baptized with the baptism of John. First, as Augustine says (Super
Joan. , Tract. iv, v), "if Christ alone had been baptized with the
baptism of John, some would have said that John's baptism, with which
Christ was baptized, was more excellent than that of Christ, with which
others are baptized. "

Secondly, because, as above stated, it behooved others to be prepared
by John's baptism for the baptism of Christ.

Reply to Objection 1: The baptism of John was instituted not only that
Christ might be baptized, but also for other reasons, as stated above
[4199](A[1]). And yet, even if it were instituted merely in order that
Christ might be baptized therewith, it was still necessary for others
to receive this baptism, in order to avoid the objection mentioned
above.

Reply to Objection 2: Others who approached to be baptized by John
could not, indeed, confer anything on his baptism: yet neither did they
receive anything therefrom, save only the sign of penance.

Reply to Objection 3: This was the baptism of "penance," for which
children were not suited; wherefore they were not baptized therewith.
But to bring the nations into the way of salvation was reserved to
Christ alone, who is the "expectation of the nations," as we read Gn.
49:10. Indeed, Christ forbade the apostles to preach the Gospel to the
Gentiles before His Passion and Resurrection. Much less fitting,
therefore, was it for the Gentiles to be baptized by John.
__________________________________________________________________

Whether John's baptism should have ceased after Christ was baptized?

Objection 1: It would seem that John's baptism should have ceased after
Christ was baptized. For it is written (Jn. 1:31): "That He may be made
manifest in Israel, therefore am I come baptizing in water. " But when
Christ had been baptized, He was made sufficiently manifest, both by
the testimony of John and by the dove coming down upon Him, and again
by the voice of the Father bearing witness to Him. Therefore it seems
that John's baptism should not have endured thereafter.

Objection 2: Further, Augustine says (Super Joan. , Tract. iv): "Christ
was baptized, and John's baptism ceased to avail. " Therefore it seems
that, after Christ's baptism, John should not have continued to
baptize.

Objection 3: Further, John's baptism prepared the way for Christ's. But
Christ's baptism began as soon as He had been baptized; because "by the
touch of His most pure flesh He endowed the waters with a regenerating
virtue," as Bede asserts (Mag. Sent. iv, 3). Therefore it seems that
John's baptism ceased when Christ had been baptized.

On the contrary, It is written (Jn. 3:22,23): "Jesus . . . came into
the land of Judea . . . and baptized: and John also was baptizing. " But
Christ did not baptize before being baptized. Therefore it seems that
John continued to baptize after Christ had been baptized.

I answer that, It was not fitting for the baptism of John to cease when
Christ had been baptized. First, because, as Chrysostom says (Hom. xxix
in Joan. ), "if John had ceased to baptize" when Christ had been
baptized, "men would think that he was moved by jealousy or anger. "
Secondly, if he had ceased to baptize when Christ baptized, "he would
have given His disciples a motive for yet greater envy. " Thirdly,
because, by continuing to baptize, "he sent his hearers to Christ"
(Hom. xxix in Joan. ). Fourthly, because, as Bede [*Scot. Erig. Comment.
in Joan. ] says, "there still remained a shadow of the Old Law: nor
should the forerunner withdraw until the truth be made manifest. "

Reply to Objection 1: When Christ was baptized, He was not as yet fully
manifested: consequently there was still need for John to continue
baptizing.

Reply to Objection 2: The baptism of John ceased after Christ had been
baptized, not immediately, but when the former was cast into prison.
Thus Chrysostom says (Hom. xxix in Joan. ): "I consider that John's
death was allowed to take place, and that Christ's preaching began in a
great measure after John had died, so that the undivided allegiance of
the multitude was transferred to Christ, and there was no further
motive for the divergence of opinions concerning both of them. "

Reply to Objection 3: John's baptism prepared the way not only for
Christ to be baptized, but also for others to approach to Christ's
baptism: and this did not take place as soon as Christ was baptized.
__________________________________________________________________

Whether those who had been baptized with John's baptism had to be baptized
with the baptism of Christ?

Objection 1: It would seem that those who had been baptized with John's
baptism had not to be baptized with the baptism of Christ. For John was
not less than the apostles, since of him is it written (Mat. 11:11):
"There hath not risen among them that are born of women a greater than
John the Baptist. " But those who were baptized by the apostles were not
baptized again, but only received the imposition of hands; for it is
written (Acts 8:16,17) that some were "only baptized" by Philip "in the
name of the Lord Jesus": then the apostles---namely, Peter and
John---"laid their hands upon them, and they received the Holy Ghost. "
Therefore it seems that those who had been baptized by John had not to
be baptized with the baptism of Christ.

Objection 2: Further, the apostles were baptized with John's baptism,
since some of them were his disciples, as is clear from Jn. 1:37. But
the apostles do not seem to have been baptized with the baptism of
Christ: for it is written (Jn. 4:2) that "Jesus did not baptize, but
His disciples. " Therefore it seems that those who had been baptized
with John's baptism had not to be baptized with the baptism of Christ.

Objection 3: Further, he who is baptized is less than he who baptizes.
But we are not told that John himself was baptized with the baptism of
Christ. Therefore much less did those who had been baptized by John
need to receive the baptism of Christ.

Objection 4: Further, it is written (Acts 19:1-5) that "Paul . . .
found certain disciples; and he said to them: Have you received the
Holy Ghost since ye believed? But they said to him: We have not so much
as heard whether there be a Holy Ghost. And he said: In what then were
you baptized? Who said: In John's baptism. " Wherefore "they were" again
"baptized in the name of our [Vulg. : 'the'] Lord Jesus Christ. " Hence
it seems that they needed to be baptized again, because they did not
know of the Holy Ghost: as Jerome says on Joel 2:28 and in an epistle
(lxix De Viro unius uxoris), and likewise Ambrose (De Spiritu Sancto).
But some were baptized with John's baptism who had full knowledge of
the Trinity. Therefore these had no need to be baptized again with
Christ's baptism.

Objection 5: Further, on Rom. 10:8, "This is the word of faith, which
we preach," the gloss of Augustine says: "Whence this virtue in the
water, that it touches the body and cleanses the heart, save by the
efficacy of the word, not because it is uttered, but because it is
believed? " Whence it is clear that the virtue of baptism depends on
faith. But the form of John's baptism signified the faith in which we
are baptized; for Paul says (Acts 19:4): "John baptized the people with
the baptism of penance, saying: That they should believe in Him who was
to come after him---that is to say, in Jesus. " Therefore it seems that
those who had been baptized with John's baptism had no need to be
baptized again with the baptism of Christ.

On the contrary, Augustine says (Super Joan. , Tract. v): "Those who
were baptized with John's baptism needed to be baptized with the
baptism of our Lord. "

I answer that, According to the opinion of the Master (Sent. iv, D, 2),
"those who had been baptized by John without knowing of the existence
of the Holy Ghost, and who based their hopes on his baptism, were
afterwards baptized with the baptism of Christ: but those who did not
base their hope on John's baptism, and who believed in the Father, Son,
and Holy Ghost, were not baptized afterwards, but received the Holy
Ghost by the imposition of hands made over them by the apostles. "

And this, indeed, is true as to the first part, and is confirmed by
many authorities. But as to the second part, the assertion is
altogether unreasonable. First, because John's baptism neither
conferred grace nor imprinted a character, but was merely "in water,"
as he says himself (Mat. 3:11). Wherefore the faith or hope which the
person baptized had in Christ could not supply this defect. Secondly,
because, when in a sacrament, that is omitted which belongs of
necessity to the sacrament, not only must the omission be supplied, but
the whole must be entirely renewed. Now, it belongs of necessity to
Christ's baptism that it be given not only in water, but also in the
Holy Ghost, according to Jn. 3:5: "Unless a man be born of water and
the Holy Ghost, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God. " Wherefore in
the case of those who had been baptized with John's baptism in water
only, not merely had the omission to be supplied by giving them the
Holy Ghost by the imposition of hands, but they had to be baptized
wholly anew "in water and the Holy Ghost. "

Reply to Objection 1: As Augustine says (Super Joan. , Tract. v): "After
John, baptism was administered, and the reason why was because he gave
not Christ's baptism, but his own . . . That which Peter gave . . . and
if any were given by Judas, that was Christ's. And therefore if Judas
baptized anyone, yet were they not rebaptized . . . For the baptism
corresponds with him by whose authority it is given, not with him by
whose ministry it is given. " For the same reason those who were
baptized by the deacon Philip, who gave the baptism of Christ, were not
baptized again, but received the imposition of hands by the apostles,
just as those who are baptized by priests are confirmed by bishops.

Reply to Objection 2: As Augustine says to Seleucianus (Ep. cclxv), "we
deem that Christ's disciples were baptized either with John's baptism,
as some maintain, or with Christ's baptism, which is more probable. For
He would not fail to administer baptism so as to have baptized servants
through whom He baptized others, since He did not fail in His humble
service to wash their feet. "

Reply to Objection 3: As Chrysostom says (Hom. iv in Matth. [*From the
supposititious Opus Imperfectum]): "Since, when John said, 'I ought to
be baptized by Thee,' Christ answered, 'Suffer it to be so now': it
follows that afterwards Christ did baptize John. " Moreover, he asserts
that "this is distinctly set down in some of the apocryphal books. " At
any rate, it is certain, as Jerome says on Mat. 3:13, that, "as Christ
was baptized in water by John, so had John to be baptized in the Spirit
by Christ. "

Reply to Objection 4: The reason why these persons were baptized after
being baptized by John was not only because they knew not of the Holy
Ghost, but also because they had not received the baptism of Christ.

Reply to Objection 5: As Augustine says (Contra Faust. xix), our
sacraments are signs of present grace, whereas the sacraments of the
Old Law were signs of future grace. Wherefore the very fact that John
baptized in the name of one who was to come, shows that he did not give
the baptism of Christ, which is a sacrament of the New Law.
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OF THE BAPTIZING OF CHRIST (EIGHT ARTICLES)

We have now to consider the baptizing of Christ, concerning which there
are eight points of inquiry:

(1) Whether Christ should have been baptized?

(2) Whether He should have been baptized with the baptism of John?

(3) Of the time when He was baptized;

(4) Of the place;

(5) Of the heavens being opened unto Him;

(6) Of the apparition of the Holy Ghost under the form of a dove;

(7) Whether that dove was a real animal?

(8) Of the voice of the Father witnessing unto Him.
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Whether it was fitting that Christ should be baptized?

Objection 1: It would seem that it was not fitting for Christ to be
baptized. For to be baptized is to be washed. But it was not fitting
for Christ to be washed, since there was no uncleanness in Him.
Therefore it seems unfitting for Christ to be baptized.

Objection 2: Further, Christ was circumcised in order to fulfil the
law. But baptism was not prescribed by the law. Therefore He should not
have been baptized.

Objection 3: Further, the first mover in every genus is unmoved in
regard to that movement; thus the heaven, which is the first cause of
alteration, is unalterable. But Christ is the first principle of
baptism, according to Jn. 1:33: "He upon whom thou shalt see the Spirit
descending and remaining upon Him, He it is that baptizeth. " Therefore
it was unfitting for Christ to be baptized.

On the contrary, It is written (Mat. 3:13) that "Jesus cometh from
Galilee to the Jordan, unto John, to be baptized by him. "

I answer that, It was fitting for Christ to be baptized. First,
because, as Ambrose says on Lk. 3:21: "Our Lord was baptized because He
wished, not to be cleansed, but to cleanse the waters, that, being
purified by the flesh of Christ that knew no sin, they might have the
virtue of baptism"; and, as Chrysostom says (Hom. iv in Matth. ), "that
He might bequeath the sanctified waters to those who were to be
baptized afterwards. " Secondly, as Chrysostom says (Hom. iv in Matth. ),
"although Christ was not a sinner, yet did He take a sinful nature and
'the likeness of sinful flesh. ' Wherefore, though He needed not baptism
for His own sake, yet carnal nature in others had need thereof. " And,
as Gregory Nazianzen says (Orat. xxxix) "Christ was baptized that He
might plunge the old Adam entirely in the water.